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Originally Posted by durtyharry
there is a difference?
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Yes there is.
As usual we see the extremist point of view. The
OP was about a car being impounded after being driven by a mechanic and how any reasonable person could make that the fault of the owner is beyond me.
The issue of whether to charge a friend / relative with theft if they have your car without consent is a different discussion altogether and one of the reasons that magistrates have discretionary powers in these cases (at least currently).
Cheers
Russ